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بِسْمِ ٱللَّٰهِ ٱلرَّحْمَٰنِ ٱلرَّحِيمِ Monday, 10 August 2026 Monday, 27 afar 1448 AH
Hadith of the Day: الْيَدُ الْعُلْيَا خَيْرٌ مِنَ الْيَدِ السُّفْلَى "The giving hand is better than the receiving hand." — Bukhari, Muslim
Social Matters | Mar 23, 2026 | 1 min read

Is a Nikah Valid if the Bride's Father Did Not Verbally Give Her in Marriage?

Question

Assalamun Alaykum, Thank you, I am reaching out because I have a question , and I would be grateful if the resources of the organisation can be used to help clarify the below. Please I have an important on the basis on which an Akhid nikkah is intact. An Akhid nikkah was held, families were introduced, sermon was given, Mary was discussed. However they're was no verbal proclamation of transfer of responsibility from the father of the bride to the Groom. The Groom realises this on the journey home after the gathering and is having doubts about the validity of the nikkah. the groom called the brides father who is an imam and he says there is no need for verbal declaration that the nikkah is valid but the groom is still having doubts kindly clarify with Proof.

Islamic Ruling & Answer

Verified

Walekumussalam,

The marriage (Nikah) in the described situation is completely valid and has been properly concluded. In Islamic law, the basic requirements for a Nikah are: offer and acceptance (ijab and qubool), two witnesses, and the consent of both parties. If these were present in the gathering, then the Nikah is valid.

A specific verbal statement from the bride’s father about “transferring responsibility” is not a required condition in Shariah. Therefore, not having such a statement does not affect the validity of the Nikah.

Answered by

Mufti Tosif Qasmi

March 23, 2026 · Updated July 03, 2026

Researched & verified under our editorial & answer-review policy.

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